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Format of 312-76
The EC-Council 312-76 evaluation is a timed exam and verifies multiple domains at once. For this, the test uses professionally designed 150 questions. These questions are based on the MCQ format. The test duration is 4 hours and it is globally available at ECC testing centers. As a rule, there is no fixed passing score threshold for EC-Council exams and it varies as per the difficulty of the actual test. Hence, aspirants should be exam-ready in a manner that they secure passing grades no matter how tough the official exam is. However, the vendor claims that 70% is needed to come up with flying colors in 312-76, in particular. Next comes the exam costing, which is $450 plus the additional $100 fee that students have to pay for the application. Every EC-Council 312-76 aspirant has to pass through an extensive screening process, wherein the exam application and mentioned details will be cross-checked. Applications that are approved via this procedure can move forward for exam appearing. This process is applicable to every aspirant and no exceptions exist.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following statements is related to residual risks?
- A. It is the probabilistic risk before implementing all security measures.
- B. It can be considered as an indicator of threats coupled with vulnerability.
- C. It is a weakness or lack of safeguard that can be exploited by a threat.
- D. It is the probabilistic risk after implementing all security measures.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following roles is responsible for the review and risk analysis of all the contracts on regular basis?
- A. The Configuration Manager
- B. The IT Service Continuity Manager
- C. The Supplier Manager
- D. The Service Catalogue Manager
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 34
To comply with a certain information security risk management standard, George did an exercise to identify all the risks that his organization faced. He ascertained that his organization was vulnerable to the following risks: phishing emails to the employees of his organization, earthquakes (common for the city in which his office was located), destruction of the organization's critical data due to the crashing of the primary server, and electrical surges, which in the long term could cause harm to the primary server.The standard demanded that he prioritize these risks before chalking out a plan to deal with them and identify the risk with the highest priority. According to George, electrical surges were the highest priority risk. Which standard is George trying to comply with?
- A. ISO 27001
- B. INCITS 483-2012
- C. ISO/IEC 27005
- D. ISO 27031
Answer: C
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27005 is an information security risk management standard that requires identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks (like George's exercise) to develop a mitigation plan. It fits his prioritization of electrical surges.
* Option A (ISO 27001):Broad security management, not risk-specific.
* Option B (INCITS 483-2012):Virtualization security, not risk management.
* Option C (ISO 27031):ICT continuity, narrower than 27005.
* "ISO/IEC 27005 guides organizations in risk identification, assessment, and prioritization, forming the basis for security and DR planning" (Module: Risk Management, Section: Standards).
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following refers to the ability to ensure that the data is not modified or tampered with?
- A. Integrity
- B. Availability
- C. Confidentiality
- D. Non-repudiation
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following levels of RAID provides security features that are availability, enhanced performance, and fault tolerance?
- A. RAID-0
- B. RAID-10
- C. RAID-1
- D. RAID-5
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which methodology is a method to analyze the involved tasks in completing a given project, especially the time needed to complete each task, and identifying the minimum time needed to complete the total project?
- A. Gantt
- B. CPM
- C. PERT
- D. FP
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following terms refers to the potential gain from the best alternative forgone when a choice needs to be made between several mutually exclusive alternatives?
- A. Fixed Cost
- B. Business Impact Analysis
- C. Opportunity Cost
- D. Cost Benefit Analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Opportunity Cost is the value of the next best alternative forgone when choosing one option over others, directly matching the question's definition.
* Option A (BIA):Assesses disruption impacts, not alternatives.
* Option C (Fixed Cost):A static expense, unrelated to choices.
* Option D (Cost Benefit Analysis):Compares costs and benefits, not forgone gains.
* "Opportunity Cost represents the potential benefit lost by choosing one recovery strategy over another, a key consideration in resource allocation" (Module: Risk Management, Section: Cost Analysis).
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following ensures that the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the services are maintained to the levels approved on the Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
- A. The Configuration Manager
- B. The Change Manager
- C. The Service Level Manager
- D. The IT Security Manager
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following values specifies the acceptable latency of data that will be recovered?
- A. Recovery Point Objective
- B. Recovery Plan Objective
- C. Recovery Time Objective
- D. Recovery Target Objective
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 41
Against which of the following does SSH provide protection?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
- A. Broadcast storm
- B. Password sniffing
- C. DoS attack
- D. IP spoofing
Answer: B,D
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following roles is responsible for review and risk analysis of all contracts on a regular basis?
- A. The Configuration Manager
- B. The IT Service Continuity Manager
- C. The Supplier Manager
- D. The Service Catalogue Manager
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 43
An organization monitors the hard disks of its employees' computers from time to time. Which policy does this pertain to?
- A. Privacy policy
- B. User password policy
- C. Backup policy
- D. Network security policy
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 44
You work as a Network administrator for Infonet Inc. The company has 135 Windows XP Professional computers and twenty Windows 2003 Server computers. You want to specify the number of invalid logon attempts allowed before a user account is locked out. What will you do to accomplish the task?
- A. Set Account Lockout Threshold policy.
- B. Set Account Lockout Duration policy.
- C. Reset Account Lockout Counter After policy.
- D. Enforce Password Must Meet Complexity Requirements policy.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 45
Jack was setting up BCP training for those employees in the organization who did not have a large role to play in the execution of the BCP. This training consisted of the framework, processes, and strategies involved in the plan. What is this training known as?
- A. Simulation Training
- B. Introductory Awareness Training
- C. Scenario Training
- D. Detailed Awareness Training
Answer: B
Explanation:
Introductory Awareness Training provides a basic overview of the BCP framework, processes, and strategies for employees with minimal execution roles, as Jack intended.
* Option B (Simulation):Hands-on disaster simulation, too advanced.
* Option C (Scenario):Specific scenario-based, not broad awareness.
* Option D (Detailed Awareness):In-depth, for key personnel, not basic.
* "Introductory Awareness Training educates non-core staff on BCP basics-framework, processes, and strategies-for general preparedness" (Module: Training and Awareness, Section: Training Types).
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following stages of the business continuity planning life cycle focuses on the execution and testing of the individual solution designs developed?
- A. Solution design stage
- B. Implementation stage
- C. Analysis stage
- D. Testing and acceptance stage
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 47
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Mark is testing the disaster recovery plan of the company. During the testing of the recovery plan, he finds that some servers have been restored with another server's data. What will Mark do to improve the disaster recovery plan?
- A. Remember which tape drive stores which server's data.
- B. Implement the cluster server.
- C. Maintain a printed tape backup report.
- D. Maintain a hard copy of the data stored on the server.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following control measures are considered while creating a disaster recovery plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
- A. Corrective measures
- B. Supportive measures
- C. Detective measures
- D. Preventive measures
Answer: A,C,D
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following disaster recovery tiers makes use of point-in-time copies?
- A. Tier 0
- B. Tier 4
- C. Tier 6
- D. Tier 5
Answer: B
Explanation:
Tier 4 in DR tier models (e.g., SHARE) uses point-in-time copies (e.g., snapshots) for recovery, balancing cost and data loss.
* Option B (Tier 5):Adds remote replication, not just point-in-time.
* Option C (Tier 0):No backup.
* Option D (Tier 6):Near-zero data loss, beyond simple copies.
* "Tier 4 employs point-in-time copies to provide reliable recovery with moderate RPO, suitable for many organizations" (Module: Disaster Recovery Tiers, Section: Tier Definitions).
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following phases is the first step towards creating a business continuity plan?
- A. Scope and Plan Initiation
- B. Plan Approval and Implementation
- C. Business Impact Assessment
- D. Business Continuity Plan Development
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 51
Organizations must assess the safety of their workplaces and consider the ability of a business to continue despite risk impact. When assessing business continuity risks, the HR Professional must consider several different types of disasters, their probability, and impact on an organization. What category of disaster is best described as acts of terrorism, major thefts, sabotage, or labor disputes?
- A. Organized or deliberate disruptions
- B. System failures
- C. Serious information security incidents
- D. Environmental disasters
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following procedures is designed to enable security personnel to identify, mitigate, and recover from malicious computer incidents, such as unauthorized access to a system or data, denial-of- service attacks, or unauthorized changes to system hardware, software, or data?
- A. Crisis Communication Plan
- B. Disaster Recovery Plan
- C. Occupant Emergency Plan
- D. Cyber Incident Response Plan
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following plans provides procedures for disseminating status reports to personnel and the public?
- A. Emergency Response Plan (ERP)
- B. Cyber Incident Response Plan (CIRP)
- C. Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)
- D. Crisis Communication Plan (CCP)
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 54
Jack owns a startup that provides IT solutions to customers. Jack's business was faring very well; however, he was facing issues with the scalability of his IT infrastructure. He decided to remedy this situation by implementing a solution, which connected his computers and servers into a single unified computing resource.
He connected these computers and servers using various hardware, networks, and software. Additionally, implementation of this solution helped him protect his business against application, server, software, and site failures. Which solution did Jack implement?
- A. Failover
- B. Deduplication
- C. Server Clustering
- D. Mirroring
Answer: C
Explanation:
Server Clustering connects multiple servers into a unified resource, improving scalability and protecting against failures, as Jack implemented.
* Option A (Mirroring):Data duplication, not scalability-focused.
* Option B (Deduplication):Storage optimization, not clustering.
* Option C (Failover):Backup switching, not unified resource.
* "Server Clustering unifies computing resources, enhancing scalability and resilience against application and site failures" (Module: Clustering Technologies, Section: Clustering Benefits).
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following backup sites is a replica of the original site of an organization with full computer systems as well as near-complete backups of user data?
- A. Warm backup site
- B. Cold backup site
- C. Mobile backup site
- D. Hot backup site
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 56
Remus works as an IT administrator for an organization. An important aspect of his job is to ensure that physical storage space remains available in all host machines at all times. However, recently there was not much physical storage space available in one host machine, so he deleted several snapshots of thevirtual machines present. Despite the deletion, free space could not be obtained. What can Remus do to remedy this situation?
- A. Delete the virtual machine database
- B. Shut down or restart the virtual machine system
- C. Delete the child disk of the snapshots present in the host machine
- D. Uninstall the Hypervisor
Answer: C
Explanation:
In virtualization (e.g., VMware, Hyper-V), deleting snapshots may not free space if dependent child disks (differencing disks) remain. Deleting these child disks consolidates space, resolving Remus's issue.
* Option B:Deleting the VM database risks data loss, not space recovery.
* Option C (Uninstall Hypervisor):Drastic, loses all VMs.
* Option D (Shutdown/Restart):Temporary, doesn't free space.
* "Deleting child disks of snapshots in VMs consolidates storage, freeing space when snapshot deletion alone is insufficient" (Module: Virtualization and Recovery, Section: Storage Management).
NEW QUESTION # 57
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